Disclaimer: I know Tywin could make things happen his way regardless. I’m just asking if he LEGALLY could.
Context: Tywin tells Cersei she’s going to marry Loras. Cersei tries to refuse. Tywin gives no fucks, later saying she wouldn’t “be the first person dragged into a sept to be married against their will.”
Cersei is queen regent and Tywin is hand of the king. As hand, he does have the legal authority to compel a marriage, as he speaks with the voice of the king. However, in their initial conversation, Cersei’s objection that she is “queen regent, not some brood mare” is met with a strong “You are MY DAUGHTER!” This implies Tywin is approaching this from his authority as her father, not the hand, which got me wondering... If Tywin hadn’t been hand, could he have legally compelled Cersei to marry Loras? As queen regent, who would have been the man with that authority over her—her father or the king?
Submitted March 17, 2021 at 09:27PM by irishdancer2 https://ift.tt/38RKi46
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